I hereby invoke judgment on the the interpretation of "the consent of a majority of other players" in rule 212: must the consent be explicitly given, or does a failure to explicitly object constitute implicit consent?
Invocation: May consent be implicit? |
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Chuck, as someone who has been looking forward to the turn after his own for quite some time, I think the rules are pretty explicit that you are the judge of this question.
Oh, I quite agree. :)
Judgment: A failure to explicitly object constitutes implicit consent only 48 hours after judgment has been delivered on all invocations on that turn.
Commentary: In prior discussion of whether the consent required by rule 212 to move on after judgment has been invoked, those in favor of implicit consent noted that surely anyone opposed to moving on would explicitly say so, while those opposed countered that this could easily be abused, by someone claiming that everyone had consented to moving on just minutes after judgment had been delivered.
Those in favor argued that a "reasonable time" to allow objections could be determined by a judge. The problem that raises is a case of "dueling judges." If an invocation were to question whether sufficient implicit consent had been granted, based on a "reasonable time" having passed, the intractable situation could arise where the Judge on the earlier turn rules that a reasonable time has not passed, thus the next turn has not begun, and she is still the Judge, while the Judge on the later turn rules that a reasonable time has passed, thus the turn has begun, and he is the Judge. (Alternately, each could argue that the other was the legitimate judge.) I avoid this situation (at least for this turn) by determining what a reasonble time is now, rather than waiting for a serious dispute to arise on the question.
In my commentary on "Moving on to 309," I noted the possibility of moving on to the next turn, following an invocation of judgment, without judgment having been delivered. Since it appears some players may not have even considered this possibility, and it seems likely that, under normal circumstances, players would not want to move on to the next turn until all questions from the current turn are settled, I further rule that implicit consent to move on is never given before judgment being rendered on all invocations (though explicit consent is certainly possible during this time). A "reasonable time" is determined to be 48 hours after all judgments have been delivered on invocations on that turn. At that point, anyone who has not explicitly objected to moving on to the next turn may be counted as consenting to move on. Before that time, the next turn may begin only if a majority of players other than the player whose turn it will be have explicitly consented to beginning that turn.
Thus, turn 309 begins when a majority of players other than flatluigi have consented to do so. Consent may be granted either by 1) explicit statement, or 2) failure to object within 48 hours of this Judgment being posted (assuming there are no further invocations of judgment during turn 308).
Players considering some sort of judicial reform for their proposals may wish to prohibit players from judging their own invocations in the future.
I take this opportunity to warn others against further invocations at this juncture, as we are now in the weak and indecisive hands of Judge ctmf. Who knows what twisted illogic we might be subject to during his reign?
Not yet, AAA, as we do not yet have a consent of a majority of players to begin turn 309 (although that may happen very soon).
I consent to beginning turn 309.
Also, ctmf must calculate his score before turn 309 can begin.
I posted a voting thread for consent to move on to 309. Last time we tried to wait for explicit consent in a judgement thread some players didn't know that their consent was required. In this case, we have four separate judgement threads, which is even more likely to cause confusion.